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Some have suggested that the first cycle of talks is rooted in premodern thought, the second in modern thought, and the third in postmodern thought. Is there any validity to this?
The text was updated successfully, but these errors were encountered:
Some have suggested that the first cycle of talks is rooted in premodern thought, the second in modern thought, and the third in postmodern thought. Is there any validity to this?
The text was updated successfully, but these errors were encountered: